Dumbledore: is Jo's interpretation 'right?', Should the author be the one to decide? |
Oct 25 2007, 05:19 AM
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Hiding in the Iron Maiden at Borgin and Burkes![]() ![]() Posts: 345 Joined: 7:27am April 4, 2007 Location: Mountain Biking in the Forbidden Forest ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() |
This is a quote from feministing.com's article on the Dumbledore revelation:
The full article may be found here: http://feministing.com/archives/007964.html This raises several interesting questions. Is Jo's statement about Dumbledore, which is made 'after the fact' and isn't directly alluded to in the text, any more valid than the readers opinion, because the text doesn't really support it? Should Jo have spelt out Dumbledore was gay in the text if his sexuality was intended to shade the plot and story, as his experience with Grindelwald was a deeply character forming one? Should we regard anything outside the novel text itself as 'canon' particularly when it doesn't appear to be supported by the text, and can often create inconsistencies? It has been stated that the PS movie Godric's Hollow scene was canon because Jo was consulted, yet it is completely different within the novel text. Jo herself has allowed for reader interpretation in her web chats: 'You can make your own mind up about this, but I think Harry went to limbo between life and death.' 'I always felt the character to be gay.' Your thoughts??? PS IF nothing else I've learnt a great new word: heteronormativity !!! what a corker from the lit crits!!! This post has been edited by hagridlurveshappyhour: Oct 25 2007, 05:27 AM -------------------- I...must...not...look...like...a...baboon's...backside.
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Oct 25 2007, 05:19 AM













